Tawassul through the Prophet using a passive voice

Question: Will you please explain the aforementioned comment of Shaykh Al-Islaam. Was his comment based on the fact that the Hadeeth was authentically reported on the authority of Imaam Ahmad (may Allaah be pleased with him) or due to the fact that the passive voice is used to imply its weakness, as is evident from the wording?

Answer: We explained the meaning in our answer to the third question. As for what was reported on the authority of Imaam Ahmad... read more here.

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